AccountingQA Latest Questions

Karan
Karan
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  2. PriyanshiGupta Graduated, B.Com
    This answer was edited.

    The profits earned by a company are mainly divided into two parts: Dividend, and Retained Earnings The part of profit distributed to its shareholders is called a dividend. The part of the profit that the company holds for future expansion or diversification plans is called retained earnings. As theRead more

    The profits earned by a company are mainly divided into two parts:

    • Dividend, and
    • Retained Earnings

    The part of profit distributed to its shareholders is called a dividend. The part of the profit that the company holds for future expansion or diversification plans is called retained earnings.

    As the name suggests, retained earnings are the profit that is retained in the company. Retained earnings can be used for various purposes:

    • To distribute as dividends to shareholders
    • Expansion of business
    • Diversification
    • For an expected merger or acquisition

    As the profits of the company belong to shareholders, retained earnings are considered as profits re-invested in the company by the shareholders.

    The formula to calculate the cost of retained earnings is:

    (Expected dividend per share / Net proceeds) + growth rate

    • Expected dividend is the dividend an investor expects for his investment in the company’s shares based on the last year’s dividend, trends in the markets, and financial statements presented by the company.
    • Net proceeds is the market value of a share, that is, how much an investor would get if he sells his shares today.
    • Growth rate represents growth of company’s revenue, dividend from previous years in the form of a percentage.

    The expected dividend per share is divided by net proceeds or the current selling price of the share, to find out the market value of retained earnings.

    The growth rate is then added to the formula. It’s the rate at which the dividend grows in the company.

    For example:

    The net proceeds from share is Rs 100, expected dividend growth rate is 2% and expected dividend is 5.

    Cost of retained earnings

    = (Expected dividend per share / Net proceeds) + Growth rate

    = (5 / 100) + 0.02

    = 0.07 or 7%

     

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Karan
Karan
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  2. Pooja_Parikh Aspiring Chartered Accountant
    This answer was edited.

    Retained earnings are kept with the company for growth instead of distributing dividends to the shareholders. Therefore the cost of retained earnings refers to its opportunity cost which is the cost of foregoing dividends by the shareholders. Therefore the cost of retained earnings is similar to theRead more

    Retained earnings are kept with the company for growth instead of distributing dividends to the shareholders. Therefore the cost of retained earnings refers to its opportunity cost which is the cost of foregoing dividends by the shareholders.

    Therefore the cost of retained earnings is similar to the cost of equity without tax and flotation cost. Hence, it can be calculated as

    Kr = Ke (1 – t) (1 – f),

    Kr = Cost of retained earnings
    Ke = Cost of equity
    t = tax rate
    f = flotation cost

    Here, flotation cost means the cost of issuing shares.

    EXAMPLE

    If cost of equity of a company was 10%, tax rate was 30% and flotation cost was 5%, then
    cost of retained earnings = 10% x (1 – 0.30)(1 – 0.05) = 6.65%.

    From the above example and formula, it is clear that the cost of retained earnings would always be less than or equal to the cost of equity since retained earnings do not involve flotation costs or tax.

    A company usually acquires funds from various sources of finance rather than a single source. Therefore the cost of capital of the company will be the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) of each individual source of finance. The cost of retained earnings is thus an important factor in calculating the overall cost of capital.

    Another important factor of WACC is the cost of equity. The cost of equity is sometimes interchanged with the cost of retained earnings. However, they are not the same.

     

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Karan
Karan
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  2. AbhishekBatabyal Helpful Pursuing CA, BCOM (HONS)

    Accumulated profit is the amount of profit left after the payment of dividends to the shareholders. It is also known as retained earnings. It is the profit that is not distributed as dividends to shareholders, hence called retained earnings. This accumulated profit is an important source of internalRead more

    Accumulated profit is the amount of profit left after the payment of dividends to the shareholders. It is also known as retained earnings. It is the profit that is not distributed as dividends to shareholders, hence called retained earnings. This accumulated profit is an important source of internal finance for a company. Accumulated profit or retained earnings can be ascertained using the following formula:

    Accumulated profit = Opening balance of accumulated profit + Net Profit/Loss (loss being in the negative figure) – Dividend paid

    Accumulated profit can be put to the following uses:

    • To reinvest into the business in form of capital assets or working capital.
    • To repay the debt of the company.
    • To pay dividends in future.
    • To set off the net loss made by the company.

    Accumulated profit and reserves are often considered the same. But in substance, they are not. The reserves are actually part of the accumulated profit, but the converse is not true. They are created by transferring amounts from the accumulated profit. While reserves are created for purpose of strengthening the financial foundation of a firm, the accumulated profit’s main purpose is to make reinvest in the business to increase its growth.

    The amount of accumulated profits depends upon the retention ratio and dividend payout ratio of a company.  The retention ratio is the opposite of the dividend payout ratio.

    The formula of dividend pay-out ratio = Dividend payable/Net Income

    And retention ratio = 1 – (Dividend payable/Net Income)

    If the retention ratio is more than the dividend payout ratio, the accumulated profit remains positive.

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Jayesh Gupta
Jayesh GuptaCurious
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  2. Rahul_Jose Aspiring CA currently doing Bcom

    When a partnership firm decides to admit a new partner into their firm, the old partners have to forego a part of their share for the new partner. Therefore, sacrificing Ratio is the proportion in which the existing partners of a company give up a part of their share for the new partner. The partnerRead more

    When a partnership firm decides to admit a new partner into their firm, the old partners have to forego a part of their share for the new partner. Therefore, sacrificing Ratio is the proportion in which the existing partners of a company give up a part of their share for the new partner. The partners can choose to forego their shares equally or in an agreed proportion.

    Before admission of the new partner, the existing partners would be sharing their profits in the old ratio. Upon admission, the profit-sharing ratio would change to accommodate the new partner. This would give rise to the new ratio. Hence Sacrificing ratio formula can be calculated as:
    Sacrificing Ratio = Old Ratio – New Ratio

    To further understand the formula, let’s say Bruce and Barry are sharing a pizza of 6 slices equally (3 slices each). They decide to share their pizza with Arthur such that they all get equal slices (2 slices each). Hence, we can use the formula to calculate their sacrifice as follows:
    Bruce’s sacrifice = 3 – 2 = 1 slice
    Barry’s sacrifice = 3 – 2 = 1 slice

    Therefore, their sacrificing ratio = 1:1. In this same way, we can solve various problems to calculate the sacrifice of partners during a change in their profit sharing ratio.

    For example, Joshua and Edwin are partners, sharing profits in the ratio 7:3. They admit Adam into their partnership such that the new profit-sharing ratio is 5:2:3. Therefore, their sacrificing ratio can be calculated as:
    Joshua’s sacrifice = old share – new share = 7/10 – 5/10 = 2/10
    Edwin’s sacrifice = old share – new share = 3/10 – 2/10 = 1/10

    Hence, sacrificing ratio of Joshua and Edwin is 2:1. Once the denominators are equal, we ignore them and only consider numerators while showing sacrificing ratio.

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Jayesh Gupta
Jayesh GuptaCurious
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  2. AbhishekBatabyal Helpful Pursuing CA, BCOM (HONS)
    This answer was edited.

    Capital Redemption Reserve is a statutory reserve, which means it is mandatory for a company to create such reserve when it decides to redeem its preference shares. Capital Redemption Reserve cannot be utilised for any purpose other than the issue of bonus shares. Now let’s understand the reason behRead more

    Capital Redemption Reserve is a statutory reserve, which means it is mandatory for a company to create such reserve when it decides to redeem its preference shares. Capital Redemption Reserve cannot be utilised for any purpose other than the issue of bonus shares.

    Now let’s understand the reason behind it.

    We know preference shares are those shares that carry some preferential rights:

    • Dividend at a fixed rate
    • Right to get repaid before equity shareholders in event of winding up of the company
    • Other rights as specified in the Articles of Associations.

    Also, unlike equity shares, preference shares are redeemable i.e. repaid after a period of time (which cannot be more than 20 years).

    Generally, the creditors of a company have the right to be repaid first. So, in event of redemption of preference shares, the preference shareholders are repaid before creditors and the total capital of the company will but the total debt of the company is unaffected.

    The gap between the debt and equity of the company will further widen and this will also increase the debt-equity ratio of the company. It will be perceived to be a risky scenario by the creditors and lenders of the company because the

    So to protect the creditor and lender, Section 55 of the Companies Act comes to rescue.

    Section 55 of the Companies Act ensure that the creditors and lenders of a company do not find themselves in a riskier situation when the company decides to redeem its preference shares by making it mandatory for a company to either

    • issue new shares to fund the redemption of preference shares

    OR

    • create a capital redemption reserve if it uses profits for redemption

    OR

    • a combination of both

    This will fill up the void created by the redemption of preference shares and the debt-equity ratio will remain unaffected. Keeping an amount aside in Capital Redemption Reserve ensures that such amount will not be used for dividend distribution and capital will be restored because it can be only used to issue bonus shares.

    In this way the debt-equity ratio remains the same, the interest of the creditors and lenders secured.

    Bonus shares are fully paid shares that are issued to existing shareholders at no cost.

    Let’s take a numerical example for further understanding:

    ABC Ltd wants to redeem its 1,000 9% Preference shares at a face value of Rs 100 per share. It has decided to issue 8,000 equity shares @Rs 10 per share and use the profit and reserves to fund the deficit.

    The journal entries will be as follows:

    Working note:                                                                            Rs

    9% preference shares due for redemption (1,000 x 10) – 1,00,000

    Less: Amount of new shares issued (8,000 x 10)           –      80,000

    Amount to be transferred to CRR                                              20,000

    Hence, the reduction of total capital by Rs 1,00,000 due to the redemption of preference shares is reversed by issuing equity shares of Rs 80,000 and creating a Capital Redemption Reserve of Rs 20,000.

     

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A_Team
A_Team
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  2. PriyanshiGupta Graduated, B.Com
    This answer was edited.

    Workmen Compensation Reserve as the name suggests is a reserve created by the company to compensate its employees in the event of any uncertainty in future. It is created to protect the interest of workers in the company. Workmen Compensation Reserve Account is generally given effect in case of admiRead more

    Workmen Compensation Reserve as the name suggests is a reserve created by the company to compensate its employees in the event of any uncertainty in future. It is created to protect the interest of workers in the company.

    Workmen Compensation Reserve Account is generally given effect in case of admission, retirement of partners or dissolution of firm.

    If there is a change in the estimated value of reserve it is given effect during the revaluation of assets and liabilities.

    Journal entry if the existing reserve is less than the new estimated amount:

    Revaluation A/c (Dr)

    To Workmen Compensation Reserve A/c

    The reserve is credited because we need to create more than the existing reserve, since the new estimated liability is more than the existing.

    Journal entry if the existing reserve is more than the new estimated amount:

    Workmen Compensation Reserve A/c (Dr)

    To Revaluation A/c

    The reserve is debited because we need to decrease the existing reserve, since the new estimated liability is less than the existing.

    If a worker claims compensation, it is said to be a liability against the reserve. In case of dissolution, any such liability against workmen compensation reserve takes priority to be paid off according to the law.

    Journal entry in case of claim against reserve is:

    Workmen Compensation Reserve A/c (Dr)

    To Workmen Compensation Claim

    The amount is transferred from the reserve to a new liability, hence the reserve is debited and the claim is credited.

    If there are not sufficient funds in the firm to pay the liability, partners will have to bring funds from their personal assets to pay the workers.

    Journal entry when partner’s have to bring funds:

    Partner’s Capital Account (Dr)

    To Workmen Compensation Reserve A/c

    Partner’s need to bring funds to fulfill the liability, hence there account is debited and since the reserve is increased, hence it is credited.

    If there is no liability against the Workmen Compensation Reserve then it is distributed amongst the partners in their existing profit-sharing ratio.

    Journal entry for distribution of reserve is:

    Workmen Compensation Reserve A/c (Dr)

    To Partner’s Capital Account

    Since, reserve is more than required it is distributed among partners, hence their account is credited and as the reserve decreases, it is debited.

     

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A_Team
A_Team
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a) Current Liability b) As an appropriation of profits c) Either a or b d) None of the above

  2. AbhishekBatabyal Helpful Pursuing CA, BCOM (HONS)

    The correct option is (d) None of these. AS-3(Revised) deals with the preparation and presentation of cash flow statements. A cash flow statement is a statement that summarises the movement of cash and cash equivalents of an enterprise in an accounting year. It helps the stakeholder to know: the amoRead more

    The correct option is (d) None of these.

    AS-3(Revised) deals with the preparation and presentation of cash flow statements. A cash flow statement is a statement that summarises the movement of cash and cash equivalents of an enterprise in an accounting year. It helps the stakeholder to know:

    • the amount of cash generated by operating activities,
    • amount of cash invested in various assets or sale of assets,
    • the types of finance source utilised by an enterprise and
    • the net cash flow of the business.

    Provision for depreciation is actually a charge on profit, i.e. it will be deducted even if there is loss. Also, there is nothing mentioned in the AS-3(revised) from which we can consider the provision for tax as an appropriation of profit.

    Generally, the cash flow statement is prepared as per the ‘indirect method’ by most enterprises.

    As per the indirect method, the computation starts from Net Profit before tax and extraordinary items. To calculate this, we have to take the current year’s profit and add the current year’s provision for tax to it.

    The reason behind it is that we need to obtain the cash flow from operations and the provision for tax is a non-cash item that has reduced the net profit. So, we have to add it back to the current year’s profit.

     

    Option (A) Current Liabilities is wrong.

    Though the provision for tax is classified as a current liabilities in the balance sheet, it is not considered as a current liability when making adjustments for changes in working capital while preparing cash flow statement.

     Option (B) as appropriation of profit is wrong.

    An appropriation of profit is an item for which an amount is put aside when there is profit. For example, transfer to reserves. But the provision for tax is a charge on profit.

    Option (C) either (A) or (B) is also wrong because both the options are incorrect as discussed above.

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